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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q46-Q51):

NEW QUESTION # 46
What is the reason for an individual to use an estate freeze?

A. Limit the tax liability for future growth
B. Reduces asset price volatility
C. Transfer control of the assets.
D. Eliminate probate fees

Answer: A

Explanation:
Anestate freezeis a strategy used to minimize future tax liability by freezing the value of an individual's assets at their current level and transferring future growth to others (e.g., family members). This helps lock in the current value for taxation purposes while passing on potential growth to the next generation without incurring immediate taxes.
* Key Benefits of an Estate Freeze:
* Ensures that future appreciation in asset value is taxed in the hands of beneficiaries rather than the original owner, typically at lower tax rates.
* Facilitates succession planning by transferring control of assets to heirs.
* Limits tax exposure while maintaining flexibility in estate planning.
* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A: An estate freeze does not eliminate probate fees, though it may reduce taxable estate value.
* B: Asset price volatility is unrelated to the purpose of an estate freeze.
* C: While asset control may change, this is not the primary reason for an estate freeze.
References:
* CSC Volume 2, Chapter 24: Estate Planning and Tax Strategies.

NEW QUESTION # 47
After reviewing a client's risk tolerance, time horizon and financial objectives. Andy recommends that a long- term asset mix of 55% equities, 40 bonds and 5% cash would be most appropriate for the client.
Which approach has Andy taken in his recommendation?

A. Dynamic asset allocation
B. Strategic asset allocation
C. Ongoing asset allocation
D. Tactical asset allocation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Strategic asset allocationis a long-term approach to portfolio management where a target allocation among asset classes (e.g., equities, bonds, cash) is established based on the client's risk tolerance, time horizon, and financial objectives. This allocation remains relatively constant over time, with periodic rebalancing to maintain the original proportions.
* Details of Andy's Recommendation:Andy recommends a fixed asset mix of 55% equities, 40% bonds, and 5% cash, which aligns with the principles of strategic asset allocation. The focus is on maintaining this allocation to meet long-term goals, without frequent shifts based on short-term market movements.
* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A. Dynamic asset allocation: This involves frequent changes to asset allocation in response to market trends, which is not evident in Andy's recommendation.
* B. Tactical asset allocation: This is a short-term, active approach where adjustments are made based on market conditions to capitalize on opportunities.
* D. Ongoing asset allocation: While this involves periodic rebalancing, it is not a defined approach like strategic allocation.
References:
* CSC Volume 2, Chapter 16: Asset allocation strategies.

NEW QUESTION # 48
What financial instrument is derived from the value of an underlying asset?

A. Forward contract
B. Preferred share.
C. Inflation linked bond
D. Real estate investment trust

Answer: A

Explanation:
Aforward contractis a derivative instrument whose value is derived from the value of an underlying asset, such as commodities, currencies, or financial instruments. It is a customized agreement between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a future date at a specified price.
* A. Real estate investment trust: A REIT is an equity instrument tied to real estate assets, not a derivative.
* C. Preferred share: A preferred share is an equity security with fixed dividends, not a derivative.
* D. Inflation-linked bond: These are fixed-income securities linked to inflation rates but are not considered derivatives.

NEW QUESTION # 49
What are examples of primary investment objectives?

A. Tax minimization and safety of principal.
B. Growth and preservation of capital
C. Marketability and tax minimization.
D. Marketability and growth of capital.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Investment objectives are critical components of a financial plan, guiding both the client and the advisor in creating strategies to achieve desired financial outcomes. These objectives generally fall into primary categories that reflect the investor's goals, risk tolerance, and time horizon.
* Growth of Capital:This objective focuses on increasing the principal value of the investment over time.
It is particularly important for investors with long-term goals, such as retirement or funding a child's education. Growth-oriented investments typically include equities, equity mutual funds, and growth- oriented ETFs.
* Preservation of Capital:This objective ensures that the invested principal remains safe from loss, emphasizing lower-risk investments like government bonds, GICs (Guaranteed Investment Certificates), or money market instruments. Investors prioritizing this objective often have a low tolerance for risk and a shorter time horizon.
Growth and Preservation of CapitalRelevance to Financial PlanningBy combining growth with preservation, the portfolio aims to strike a balance between generating returns and maintaining the invested capital. This dual objective is well-suited for individuals in different life stages:
* Young Investors: Tend to emphasize growth more, leveraging their long time horizons.
* Older Investors: Place greater emphasis on preservation as they near or enter retirement, prioritizing capital safety to fund living expenses.
Why A is CorrectOption A explicitly combines both these objectives, aligning with a widely recognized approach to investing that balances risk and reward depending on the investor's profile and needs.
References:
* Volume 2, Section 15: Portfolio Management Process-Investment Objectives and Constraints.
* Volume 1, Section 4: Overview of Economics-Principles of Risk and Return.

NEW QUESTION # 50
What is the difference between sinking funds and purchase funds concerning the redemption of bonds poor to maturity?

A. Sinking funds can redeem fie bones any time while purchase funds follow a prearranged schedule.
B. Sinking funds can redeem bonds only if they trade below a stipulated price while purchase runes do not have such a requirement.
C. Sinking funds involve the issuer determining when bonds are redeemed while purchase funds Involve the investor determining when the bonds are redeemed.
D. Sinking funds have mandated redemptions while purchase funds can redeem only upon certain market conditions.

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Sinking fundsrequire the issuer to redeem a specified portion of the bond issue at regular intervals. This ensures systematic debt reduction and is mandated regardless of market conditions.
* Purchase funds, however, allow the issuer to buy back bonds only if they are available in the market at or below a stipulated price, making redemption conditional on market conditions.
* B. Sinking funds can redeem bonds only if they trade below a stipulated price: This applies to purchase funds, not sinking funds.
* C. Sinking funds involve the issuer determining when bonds are redeemed while purchase funds involve the investor determining when the bonds are redeemed: Investors have no role in determining bond redemption under either method.
* D. Sinking funds can redeem the bonds any time while purchase funds follow a prearranged schedule:
Sinking funds follow a schedule, and purchase funds rely on market conditions.

NEW QUESTION # 51
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Complete CSC2 New Question & Leader in Qualification Exams & Newest CSC2 Exam Dumps Collection

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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q46-Q51):

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